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Hello, my parents currently own a property A as joint tenant and that is their PPOR.
Now they've divoiced and mother planning to purchase new property B, which is purchased solely under my mum's name and declare as PPOR,
but the existing property A still under my father and mother's name. Does property A still consider to be my father's PPOR but Investment Property in my mother's name (ie. 50% of property A is subject to CGT when selling).
So when comes to selling both house, 100% of property B and 50% of property A are not subject to CGT. Can you pls advise if I am correct? Thanks. |
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